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Originally Posted by dangonay Did you not read my previous post? Here, I've quoted it again for you. You're using examples where there's far more to the story, and then using that partial information to base judgement? |
You're not reading my response. I don't think there's ANY circumstance where the govt can go in and seize a private vehicle before there is any proof of actual damage caused.
I don't disagree with the concept of civil damages. If the government/individual sues another individual in civil court for damages, and the court awards a monetary sum, the defendant should be required to pay this amount through traditional methods (cash, garnishing of wages, sale of assets etc). If the defendant does not pay the judgement, then the govt can come in to seize and liquidate an asset. Civil courts award damages for actual damages, not potential damages. Furthermore, they compensate real victims, not people (govt) that sues on behalf of "society."
Protecting society from aggressive drivers who have the *potential* to cause harm is in the scope of the MVA with its listed laws, regs and penalties
You haven't answered how it is fair that the same offense results in different penalties depending whether I was driving a Ferrari or a Civic?
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There's a reason the Ferrari and M6 owners settled.
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Again, the evidence is clear that the drivers in those examples did not get into any accidents, thus there is no "damages" that should be awarded to anyone. The scope of the MVA is to spell out the laws and penalties for traffic offenses.