Quote:
Originally Posted by bryv
Can anyone can help me lol
1) A offered to sell house to B and said to accept by mail by Sept 25
2) B dropped letter in mail (Sept 24th); got delayed (received Sept 27th)
3) A offered to sell the house to C
4) C accepted Sept 26th and the two parties signed a written purchase agreement the morning of the 27th.
I understand that B had accepted the offer on the 26th and a binding contract was formed when he dropped it into the mailbox, but is there a contract between A and C? I'm thinking no, and that the contract between A and B takes precedent, but why? BUS 393 btw
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I don't take this class, but from an average guy's logic, wouldn't the contract be between A and C? A and B exchanged a verbal agreement that B had to accept by the 25th, and even though he received the letter on a later date, the fact still remains that the agreement was to accepted by the 25th. I would assume the written agreement overrides the verbal as well.