[Strzelec]

Originally Posted by bryv

Can anyone can help me lol

1) A offered to sell house to B and said to accept by mail by Sept 25
2) B dropped letter in mail (Sept 24th); got delayed (received Sept 27th)
3) A offered to sell the house to C
4) C accepted Sept 26th and the two parties signed a written purchase agreement the morning of the 27th.

I understand that B had accepted the offer on the 26th and a binding contract was formed when he dropped it into the mailbox, but is there a contract between A and C? I'm thinking no, and that the contract between A and B takes precedent, but why? BUS 393 btw

You sir are correct.

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