Quote:
Originally Posted by dinosaur
^ nope. debt was acquired prior to marriage.
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Interesting comment, Dinosaur. If the debt is not joint debt subsequent to marriage, then why do people go sign prenuptial agreements?
If, in the absence of a prenuptial agreement, individual assets brought into a marriage are joint assets subsequent to marriage, and are subject to a 50/50 split upon divorce, then why would individual debts not be given the same treatment?