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Old 09-23-2013, 09:17 AM   #63
dinosaur
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Quote:
Originally Posted by adrnlnrush00 View Post
Interesting comment, Dinosaur. If the debt is not joint debt subsequent to marriage, then why do people go sign prenuptial agreements?

If, in the absence of a prenuptial agreement, individual assets brought into a marriage are joint assets subsequent to marriage, and are subject to a 50/50 split upon divorce, then why would individual debts not be given the same treatment?
I don't the details of everything, but all I know is that the debt you bring into a marriage is your own. Not sure why or what rationale there is...

I think people who sign prenuptial agreements have substantial assets that they would like to protect and to prevent having a judge dictate what lifestyle one has to help maintain for the other.

For example:Husband owns a business. After marriage, husband 'hires' wife and pays her an income. They divorce and she is essentially 'fired'. Because he was the source of income during the marriage, he may have to maintain it. Other things like alimony and balloon payments for length of marriage are also included.

Debt is a little different.
For example: my student loan debt is mine. when i marry my husband it stays mine and when we divorce, it is still mine.
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